AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) CPC Exam Questions

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Total 354 questions
Question 1

Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1

Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.

Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1

nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.

Anesthesia: General.0

Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0

Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general

anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.

Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.

This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.

The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.

She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition. There were no complications.

What CPT coding is reported?



Answer : B

52356 = Cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy, lithotripsy and stent placement

Combination code do not report components separately


Question 2

Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1

Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.

Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1

nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.

Anesthesia: General.0

Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0

Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general

anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.

Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.

This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.

The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.

She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition. There were no complications.

What E/M code is reported for this encounter?



Answer : C

Established patient with moderate MDM

99214 aligns with CPC exam standards


Question 3

A patient receives 200 mg IM Depo-Testosterone.

What HCPCS Level II coding is reported?



Answer : C

J1071 = Testosterone cypionate, 200 mg per unit

96372 = Therapeutic IM injection

Vaccine admin codes do not apply

ANESTHESIA


Question 4

A 45-year-old male, with no prior history of heart disease, has been diagnosed having atherosclerotic heart disease with unstable angina. He is in the cardiologist's office for a cardiac MRI test

to determine the morphology and function of his heart under stress. First images obtained are without contrast and then contrast is administered for the next set of images. Then the physician

injects medicine to increase the heart rate and checks the coronary arteries for narrowing or blockage. Physician interprets the test and the results and images are in the medical record.

What radiology CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?



Answer : A

1. Procedure and CPT Code Selection:

The patient underwent a cardiac MRI to assess the morphology and function of the heart under stress, involving both non-contrast and contrast-enhanced imaging. Additionally, pharmacological stress testing was performed to evaluate the coronary arteries.

CPT Code 75563 is appropriate for a cardiac MRI with both stress and rest imaging, including morphology and function studies with contrast and pharmacologic stress testing. This code accurately captures the entire scope of the MRI study described in this case.

Modifier 26 is applied to indicate the professional component of the service if the cardiologist is providing only the interpretation and not the technical component.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code I25.118 is used for atherosclerotic heart disease with unstable angina. This code accurately reflects the diagnosis provided in the scenario.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 75559 (option B) represents a cardiac MRI without stress testing, which does not cover the pharmacologic stress component performed here.

Code 75557 (in option D) is for a limited cardiac MRI that does not include both stress and non-stress imaging, so it is incorrect for this comprehensive test.

ICD-10-CM Code I25.110 (in options C and D) is for atherosclerosis with angina pectoris without unstable angina, making I25.118 more appropriate given the diagnosis of unstable angina.

4. AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines:

AAPC and CPT guidelines support the use of 75563 for comprehensive cardiac MRI studies with stress testing, both with and without contrast.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 75563-26, I25.118.


Question 5

A retinal specialist diagnoses type 2 diabetic mild nonproliferative retinopathy with macular edema, bilateral. Diabetes is secondary to Cushing's syndrome and controlled with oral hypoglycemics. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?



Answer : B

E08.3213 = Diabetes due to underlying condition with mild NPDR with macular edema, bilateral

E24.9 = Cushing's syndrome (underlying condition)

Z79.84 = Long-term use of oral hypoglycemic drugs

Sequencing follows ICD-10-CM guidelines for secondary diabetes.


Question 6

A patient presents to the office with dysuria and lower abdominal pain. The physician suspects she has a UTI. A non-automated urinalysis is done in the office and is negative. UTI is ruled out

for the final diagnosis.

What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?



Answer : C

1. Procedure and CPT Code Selection:

The urinalysis performed was non-automated and without microscopy.

CPT Code 81002 is appropriate for a non-automated urinalysis without microscopy. This code accurately reflects the test performed in the office.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code R30.0 is used for dysuria, which was one of the patient's presenting symptoms.

ICD-10-CM Code R10.30 is used for lower abdominal pain, another presenting symptom.

Since the urinalysis ruled out a urinary tract infection, N39.0 (UTI) is not appropriate as a final diagnosis.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 81000 (in options A and B) is for a urinalysis with microscopy, which was not performed here.

N39.0 is used when a UTI is confirmed, which is incorrect for this case since the urinalysis was negative, ruling out UTI.

4. AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines recommend coding based on the symptoms when a specific diagnosis (such as UTI) is ruled out. Therefore, R30.0 and R10.30 are appropriate symptom codes for this encounter.

Thus, the correct answer is C. 81002, R30.0, R10.30.


Question 7

A 57-year-old woman with a physical status of 3 received general endotracheal anesthesia for a panniculectomy. The anesthesiologist personally performed the entire anesthesia service.

What CPT@ coding is reported for the anesthesia?



Answer : A

To code for anesthesia services, we select the correct CPT anesthesia code based on the procedure, modifiers, and physical status of the patient:

00800 represents 'Anesthesia for procedures on the lower abdomen not otherwise specified,' which includes procedures like a panniculectomy. The code 00802 is not appropriate here because it is used for lower abdominal procedures involving 'major lower abdominal vessels,' which does not apply to a panniculectomy.

AA Modifier indicates that the anesthesia services were personally performed by the anesthesiologist, as stated in the scenario.

P3 Modifier reflects a physical status of 3, which indicates a patient with a 'severe systemic disease,' matching the patient's documented condition.

The emergency modifier 99140 is not appropriate here, as there is no indication that the procedure was performed under emergency conditions.

Thus, the correct answer is 00800-AA-P3.


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