A patient is having X-ray imaging of his abdomen following a traumatic episode. A decubitus, supine, and erect views are performed on the abdomen.
What CPT is reported?
Answer : B
1. Procedure and CPT Code Selection:
The patient underwent X-ray imaging of the abdomen with multiple views: decubitus, supine, and erect. This is a comprehensive study that includes different positioning to evaluate the abdomen.
CPT Code 74022 is appropriate for an abdominal X-ray with a minimum of three views. This code accurately reflects the multiple views taken in this scenario.
2. Modifier 26:
Modifier 26 is applied to indicate the professional component of the service if the radiologist is only interpreting the images and not providing the technical component.
3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 74018 (in option A) is for a single view of the abdomen, which does not apply here since multiple views were taken.
Code 74019 (in option C) covers two views of the abdomen, which is insufficient for this three-view study.
Code 74021 (in option D) represents an abdominal X-ray with more limited or focused views and does not align with the comprehensive three-view study described.
4. AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines:
According to AAPC and CPT guidelines, 74022 is the correct code when an abdominal X-ray study involves at least three views, capturing various positions for a thorough examination.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. 74022-26.
Where is a Warthin's tumor found?
Answer : C
Warthin's tumor, also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum, is a benign tumor of the salivary glands, most commonly affecting the parotid gland. It typically presents as a painless, slow-growing mass near the angle of the jaw.
ICD-10-CM, medical dictionaries, and oncology textbooks
Which is a malignant neoplasm originating in the skin?
Answer : C
Melanoma is a malignant neoplasm of melanocytes, which are pigment-producing cells found primarily in the skin. It is one of the most serious forms of skin cancer and is classified under ICD-10-CM category C43.- (Malignant melanoma of skin).
Osteosarcoma is a malignant tumor of bone, not skin (ICD-10-CM C40--C41).
Hemangioma is a benign tumor of blood vessels and is not malignant (often coded under D18.-).
Lymphoma is a malignancy of the lymphatic system, not a primary skin neoplasm (ICD-10-CM C81--C85), though rare cutaneous lymphomas exist, they are not the standard CPC exam answer here.
The spleen is in what organ system?
Answer : D
The spleen is a part of the lymphatic system, which is responsible for filtering blood, removing damaged blood cells, and supporting immune function. The spleen contains lymphocytes that help fight infections and regulate the immune response.
A . Nervous: The nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves, unrelated to immune function.
B . Endocrine: The endocrine system regulates hormones through glands like the thyroid and pancreas, not directly involved with blood filtration or immune cell production.
C . Digestive: While the spleen is located near digestive organs, it does not play a role in digestion.
Thus, the correct answer is D. Lymphatic.
Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1
Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.
Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1
nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.
Anesthesia: General.0
Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0
Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general
anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.
Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.
This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.
The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.
She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition. There were no complications.
What E/M code is reported for this encounter?
Answer : C
Established patient with moderate MDM
99214 aligns with CPC exam standards
A therapeutic colonoscopy is performed, where the scope goes beyond the splenic flexure, but not to the cecum. Using the Colonoscopy Decision Tree illustrated in the CPT code book, what coding is reported?
Answer : A
When a therapeutic colonoscopy is attempted but does not reach the cecum, it is considered an incomplete procedure. According to the CPT Colonoscopy Decision Tree, if the colonoscopy extends beyond the splenic flexure but does not reach the cecum, the appropriate way to code this incomplete colonoscopy is by appending modifier 53 to indicate a discontinued procedure due to extenuating circumstances or risk to the patient.
A . 45378-53 is the correct answer as it designates a diagnostic colonoscopy with modifier 53, signifying that the procedure was started but not completed.
B . 45330 is incorrect as it represents a sigmoidoscopy, which only goes up to the splenic flexure.
C . 45331-45347 refers to therapeutic colonoscopies that were completed to the cecum.
D . 45379-45398 with modifier 52 is incorrect because modifier 52 is used for reduced services, which does not accurately describe an incomplete colonoscopy.
Thus, the correct answer is A. 45378-53.
A patient had surgery a year ago to repair two extensor tendons in his wrist. He is in surgery for a secondary repair for the same two tendons with free graft. What CPT coding is reported?
Answer : B
1. Procedure Type: This scenario describes a secondary repair of two extensor tendons in the wrist with a free graft. According to CPT coding guidelines, the secondary repair with a free graft suggests a more complex repair than primary closure.
2. CPT Code Selection:
Code 25270 is used for a primary repair of an extensor tendon in the forearm or wrist. Since this is a secondary repair, 25270 does not apply, ruling out options A and C.
Code 25272 represents the repair of a single extensor tendon in the forearm or wrist, which includes both primary and secondary repairs. However, it does not involve free grafts, ruling out option D.
Code 25274 specifically addresses the secondary repair of an extensor tendon with free graft in the forearm or wrist, which is the correct scenario described in the question.
3. Applying the Code for Multiple Tendons:
Since the procedure involves two tendons, 25274 should be reported twice (25274 x 2) to account for the secondary repair on each tendon individually.
4. Reference from AAPC CPC Guidelines:
In AAPC CPC and CPT coding principles, tendon repair codes require careful distinction between primary repairs and secondary repairs with grafts. The guidelines specify that multiple tendons should be coded with individual codes when performed on separate anatomical structures, hence the use of 25274 twice for both tendons.
Therefore, the verified and precise answer based on CPT guidelines and AAPC coding standards is B. 25274 x 2.