ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient CCDS-O Exam Questions

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Total 140 questions
Question 1

Which of the following is true of the RAF metric?



Answer : C

RAF (Risk Adjustment Factor) is a population risk stratification metric used in risk adjustment models to estimate expected healthcare resource utilization for an individual beneficiary relative to an average patient. In outpatient CDI, RAF is driven by a combination of demographic elements (such as age/sex and eligibility/status factors) and---critically---documented, coded conditions that map to risk categories (e.g., HCCs). The intent is not to ''predict the provider's reimbursement'' for the current year in a direct, visit-by-visit sense; rather, RAF contributes to actuarial projections of expected cost and supports payment benchmarking and budget setting in value-based arrangements (e.g., Medicare Advantage and certain shared savings models). RAF is also not based only on demographics (eliminating option B) and it does not determine reimbursement for each individual office visit (eliminating option D). ACDIS outpatient CDI emphasizes that accurate, specific documentation and coding of active, clinically supported conditions improves the accuracy of RAF, which in turn better aligns projected costs and comparisons across attributed populations.


Question 2

For outpatient/provider services, the primary sources of coding authority include the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, AHA's Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS, as well as which of the following?



Answer : A

Outpatient/provider coding relies on two major code sets: ICD-10-CM for diagnoses and CPT/HCPCS for professional services, procedures, and supplies. Because of that, outpatient coding authority is anchored not only in the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines and AHA Coding Clinic guidance for diagnosis reporting, but also in the authoritative guidance that clarifies CPT/HCPCS reporting. ACDIS outpatient CDI education stresses that CDI specialists must understand both sides: the diagnosis coding rules (ICD-10-CM) and the procedural/service reporting rules (CPT/HCPCS) that drive much of outpatient reimbursement. AMA's CPT Assistant is a key interpretive authority for CPT coding guidance, while AHA's Coding Clinic for HCPCS provides clarification on HCPCS Level II reporting. The other options focus on ICD-10-PCS guidelines and DRG tools, which are primarily inpatient facility concepts (PCS is inpatient procedure coding; DRGs are inpatient payment groupers). Therefore, the correct supplemental outpatient authority pair is AHA's Coding Clinic for HCPCS and AMA's CPT Assistant.


Question 3

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When should the assignment of a not elsewhere classified (NEC)/other specified code be reported?



Answer : B

In outpatient CDI and ICD-10-CM coding guidance emphasized in ACDIS education, ''NEC'' (Not Elsewhere Classified) aligns with the ''other specified'' options in the code set and is used when the provider's documentation is clinically specific, but the classification system does not offer a unique code for that exact specificity. In other words, the record contains enough detail to describe a distinct type, cause, manifestation, or clinical variation of a condition, yet there is no more precise code available, so the ''other specified'' category appropriately captures that documented specificity. This is the opposite of ''unspecified'' (often associated with ''NOS''), which is selected when the documentation is not detailed enough to choose a more specific code option. From a chart review perspective, NEC/other specified supports accurate reporting because it reflects that the clinician did document additional detail, and the coder is not defaulting to unspecified due to missing documentation---rather, the code set itself limits further granularity.


Question 4

Which diagnosis and treatment plan may generate a query?



Answer : D

Outpatient CDI queries are most commonly triggered when there is a disconnect between the documented diagnosis and the documented treatment plan, suggesting that the clinician may be managing an additional condition that is not clearly stated, or that the diagnosis is inaccurately documented. Options A and B reflect typical, clinically aligned management: luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone therapy is a standard treatment pathway for prostate carcinoma, and amiodarone is a recognized antiarrhythmic used in atrial fibrillation management in appropriate circumstances. Option C can also be clinically consistent because parenteral nutrition is often used when malnutrition is present and the patient cannot meet nutritional needs enterally. Option D is the outlier: ''immunotherapy'' is not a standard treatment for severe major depressive disorder and more commonly aligns with oncology or certain immune-mediated diseases. This mismatch would appropriately prompt a query to clarify the actual condition being treated (e.g., an active malignancy) or to confirm whether ''immunotherapy'' refers to something else (such as allergy immunotherapy) and whether depression is the correct, visit-relevant diagnosis being addressed.


Question 5

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Upon retrospective review of a patient visit 2 weeks prior, a CDI specialist notes physician documentation stating the following: ''Sick Sinus Syndrome in 2016 s/p pacemaker placement. Latest EKG shows normal paced rhythm.'' There are no codes noted for Sick Sinus Syndrome or the pacemaker. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?



Answer : A

In outpatient CDI, diagnoses reported for an encounter must be supported as current and clinically relevant to that visit (evaluated, monitored, assessed, treated, or otherwise affecting care). The note documents a history of sick sinus syndrome with pacemaker placement in 2016 and indicates the current rhythm is paced. The most clearly reportable, present condition is the presence of a cardiac pacemaker, which is a status that can affect clinical decision-making (e.g., interpretation of rhythm findings, medication choices, procedures, and future cardiac evaluation) and is appropriate to code when documented. However, the documentation does not show that sick sinus syndrome itself was actively assessed or managed during this visit; it is referenced as a past condition leading to the device. Because outpatient coding does not assume an active diagnosis solely from historical mention, the best action is to capture the pacemaker status code only. Retrospective amendment requests or rebilling steps are not the first-line CDI action when the documentation does not support active management of the underlying arrhythmia.


Question 6

An ACO with 50,000 beneficiaries just completed its first year of a 3-year contract where the final scores were quality 90%; expected costs were $50 million, and actual costs were $52 million. The shared savings rate determined by CMS was 50%. Which of the following is MOST accurate and applies for the ACO?



Answer : B

In MSSP-style ACO financial reconciliation, performance is evaluated against a benchmark (expected costs). Here, the ACO's actual spending ($52M) exceeds the expected benchmark ($50M) by $2M, meaning the ACO generated shared losses rather than savings. In risk-bearing ACO arrangements, when costs exceed the benchmark and the ACO is in a track that includes downside risk, the organization may owe CMS a portion of those losses. The shared savings/loss rate (50% in this scenario) represents the percentage of the difference from the benchmark that the ACO shares with CMS, assuming applicable thresholds are met. Thus, instead of receiving a shared savings payment, the ACO would be accountable to pay back a share of the excess spending (conceptually 50% of the $2M overage, if all model requirements are satisfied). Option D is not correct because reconciliation is typically performed on a performance-year basis rather than only at the end of the full agreement period, and option C is not how MSSP eligibility works.


Question 7

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A patient presents to the office complaining of lower abdominal pain and burning urination. Urinalysis indicates WBC >10, positive nitrites, and leuk esterase. Documentation identifies pain, urinary frequency, and fever likely UTI. Cultures are pending for E-Coli. The patient is started on antipyretics and Levaquin. Which of the following conditions can be reported?



Answer : D

In the outpatient setting, uncertain diagnoses described with terms such as ''likely,'' ''probable,'' ''suspected,'' or ''rule out'' generally are not reported as established conditions for coding purposes. Instead, the encounter is coded to the confirmed signs and symptoms documented and evaluated at that visit. Here, the provider's assessment is ''likely UTI,'' with urine culture results still pending, so a definitive UTI diagnosis is not yet confirmed within the scenario. Likewise, the organism (E. coli) cannot be coded because it is only suspected and not confirmed until culture results are finalized. Outpatient CDI emphasizes aligning reportable diagnoses to what is clearly supported as present and addressed during the visit. The note explicitly identifies pain, urinary frequency, and fever---symptoms that drove evaluation and treatment (antipyretics and antibiotic initiation). Between the answer choices, ''abdominal pain, fever, and urinary frequency'' best represents the reportable conditions based on documented, evaluated symptoms without coding an uncertain infection diagnosis or an unconfirmed causative organism.


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