AGA Certified Government Financial Manager CGFM Exam Questions

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Total 115 questions
Question 1

What is the formal tam for the listing and assessment of an agency's top risks?



Answer : A

* What Is a Risk Profile?

A risk profile is the formal listing and assessment of an agency's top risks. It identifies the risks that could significantly impact an organization's ability to achieve its objectives and prioritizes them based on factors like likelihood and impact.

* Why Is the Risk Profile Important?

The risk profile helps management focus on the most critical risks and allocate resources to address them effectively. It is a core element of enterprise risk management frameworks (e.g., COSO ERM).

In the federal government, OMB Circular A-123 requires agencies to maintain a risk profile as part of their internal control and risk management processes.

* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B . Risk Management Plan: This is broader and includes strategies for mitigating and monitoring risks, not just listing and assessing them.

C . Risk Assessment: This is a process used to identify and evaluate risks but does not specifically refer to the formal listing of risks.

D . Risk Register: While similar to a risk profile, a risk register typically includes more granular details, such as specific control measures, responsibilities, and timelines.

* Reference and Documents:

OMB Circular A-123: Requires federal agencies to develop a risk profile as part of their risk management framework.

COSO ERM Framework (2017): Describes the risk profile as a tool for managing enterprise-wide risks.


Question 2

A sound investment category for pension funds that can be easily valued is



Answer : A

* What Are Open-Ended Mutual Funds?

Open-ended mutual funds are investment vehicles that allow investors to buy and sell shares at the current net asset value (NAV), which is determined daily.

These funds are highly liquid and can be easily valued, making them a sound investment option for pension funds.

* Why Are They Suitable for Pension Funds?

Pension funds require investments that are easily valued, transparent, and provide liquidity to meet benefit obligations. Open-ended mutual funds meet all these criteria.

* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B . Reverse repurchase agreements: While they can be part of investment strategies, they are not easily valued compared to open-ended mutual funds.

C . Derivative instruments: Derivatives can be complex and difficult to value, making them less suitable for pension funds that prioritize transparency and simplicity.

D . Internal investment pools: These are investment vehicles used by governments, but their valuation may not be as straightforward or frequent as mutual funds.

* Reference and Documents:

GAO Guide to Investment Management for Pension Funds: Recommends transparent, easily valued investments like mutual funds.

AICPA Pension Plan Audit Guidelines: Emphasizes liquidity and valuation in pension fund investments.


Question 3

Which of the following includes the aggregate level and types of risks that the organization is willing to assume in

order to achieve its Strategic objectives?



Answer : C

* What Is a Risk Profile?

A risk profile represents the aggregate level and types of risks that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its strategic objectives. It aligns with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance and helps prioritize and manage risks effectively.

This profile typically includes key risks, their likelihood, and potential impact, as well as how those risks align with the organization's mission and strategy.

* Why Is Risk Profile the Correct Answer?

The risk profile provides an enterprise-wide view of risks and their potential influence on achieving strategic goals. It aggregates risks across all levels of the organization and ensures that management considers them when making decisions.

* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A . Risk Register: While a risk register includes detailed descriptions of individual risks, it does not aggregate risk levels or types across the organization.

B . Risk and Control Evaluation Matrix: This tool evaluates specific risks and controls but does not capture the organization's overall risk appetite or profile.

D . Risk and Control Assessment Tool: This is a generic tool for assessing risks and controls, not for aggregating the overall risk picture.

* Reference and Documents:

OMB Circular A-123: Specifies the need for agencies to maintain a risk profile as part of enterprise risk management.

COSO ERM Framework (2017): Defines a risk profile as central to managing risks in alignment with strategic objectives.


Question 4

Business process re-engineering typically addresses all of the following EXCEPT the



Answer : C

Business Process Re-Engineering (BPR):

BPR focuses on redesigning key processes to achieve dramatic improvements in efficiency, effectiveness, and performance.

It typically involves addressing technical systems, human factors, and process workflows, but it does not involve redefining the organization's mission, which is a strategic activity outside the scope of BPR.

Explanation of Answer Choices:

A . Key processes: Incorrect. Key processes are the primary focus of BPR.

B . Human environment: Incorrect. BPR often addresses human factors, such as roles and responsibilities.

C . Organizational mission: Correct. The mission is a strategic element and not typically redefined as part of process re-engineering.

D . Technical environment: Incorrect. BPR often involves rethinking technical systems and workflows.


Hammer & Champy, Reengineering the Corporation: A Manifesto for Business Revolution.

GAO, Business Process Re-Engineering for Government Efficiency.

Question 5

Under the control environment component of internal control, management should



Answer : A

Control Environment Component:

The control environment is the foundation of an internal control system, setting the tone at the top.

Demonstrating integrity and ethical values is the first principle of the control environment, as outlined in the COSO Internal Control Framework.

Explanation of Answer Choices:

A . Demonstrate a commitment to integrity and ethical values: Correct. This is a foundational principle of the control environment.

B . Implement control activities through policies: This relates to the 'Control Activities' component, not the control environment.

C . Communicate quality information to achieve the entity's objectives: This relates to the 'Information and Communication' component.

D . Establish and operate activities to monitor the internal control system: This relates to the 'Monitoring Activities' component.


COSO, Internal Control - Integrated Framework.

GAO, Standards for Internal Control in the Federal Government (Green Book).

Question 6

When reviewing a report on internal control from a shared service provider that noted a weakness, the agency

should



Answer : A

Response to Weaknesses in Shared Service Providers:

Shared service providers often issue reports on internal controls (e.g., SOC 1 or SOC 2 reports).

When a weakness is identified, the recipient agency must evaluate whether compensating or mitigating controls exist to address the risk, ensuring continued reliability.

Explanation of Answer Choices:

A . Consider the existence of compensating or mitigating controls: Correct. This is a standard response to internal control weaknesses, as outlined in auditing and risk management best practices.

B . Ask the service provider to correct the weakness: Incorrect. While this may be appropriate, the recipient agency is ultimately responsible for evaluating and addressing the risk.

C . Dismiss the weakness: Incorrect. Ignoring a weakness can expose the agency to risk.

D . Refer the weakness to the Contracting Officer: Incorrect. This may be part of the process, but the agency must first assess the impact and controls.


American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA), SOC Reports Guidance.

Government Accountability Office (GAO), Internal Control Standards for Federal Agencies.

Question 7

To support optimal cash management vendor payment procedures, invoices with discount terms should be paid



Answer : D

* Why Pay on the Discount Date?

Discount terms are offered by vendors to encourage early payment, such as '2/10, net 30' (2% discount if paid within 10 days). Paying on the discount date ensures the organization takes advantage of cost savings while still making timely payments.

This approach optimizes cash management by reducing payment obligations while maintaining good vendor relationships.

* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A . After the due date: Late payments can damage vendor relationships and incur penalties.

B . Prior to the due date: Paying too early does not provide additional benefits and can unnecessarily deplete cash reserves.

C . On the due date: If a discount is offered, waiting until the due date means missing the opportunity to save money.

* Reference and Documents:

GAO Financial Management Guide: Recommends paying invoices with discounts on the discount date to maximize cost savings.

Best Practices in Governmental Cash Management (AGA): Highlights the importance of managing vendor payments to take advantage of discounts.


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Total 115 questions