CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 (2025) 220-1201 Practice Questions

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Total 411 questions
Question 1

Which of the following should a technician check when the display of a computer Is flickering?



Answer : B

Display flickering is most commonly caused by an incorrect or unstable refresh rate setting. The refresh rate is the number of times per second (measured in Hz) that a monitor redraws the image. CompTIA A+ teaches that LCD, LED, and especially older CRT displays can exhibit flickering if the refresh rate is set too low or to a value unsupported by the monitor.

For modern displays, typical refresh rates are 60 Hz, 75 Hz, 120 Hz, 144 Hz, and higher. If the refresh rate is mismatched---such as manually set above the monitor's rated capability---the screen may flicker, blank intermittently, or show instability. Similarly, if the refresh rate is set too low, the user may perceive visible flicker, eye strain, or shimmering on the display.

Checking and adjusting the refresh rate through the operating system's display settings (or GPU control panel) is the first and most direct troubleshooting step for flickering issues.

The LCD type (A) has no bearing on flickering once installed. Screen resolution (C) affects clarity and scaling but does not cause flicker by itself. Pixel density (D) is a hardware characteristic and cannot cause flickering.

Thus, the correct component to check when diagnosing display flicker is the refresh rate.


Question 2

The display in a conference room has a burn-in get fastestthat does not match the presentation Which of the following would test resolve the issue?



Answer : B

B . Correct the keystone:

A keystone correction adjusts the image shape when a projector is angled either up or down. When a projector is not positioned directly perpendicular to the screen, the image becomes distorted or offset. Correcting the keystone will resolve alignment issues, ensuring that the presentation matches the display.

Incorrect Options:

A . Adjust the color settings: This is used for improving color balance and has no impact on ghosting or mismatched images.

C . Increase the brightness levels: Brightness changes the visibility of the image but does not address ghosting or alignment.

D . Replace the monitor: Replacing the monitor is unnecessary unless there is hardware failure, which is not indicated here.

Key Takeaway: Keystone correction is essential to resolve alignment and distortion issues in projected images.


Question 3

A technician is building a high-powered workstation. When the technician attempts to start the workstation, nothing happens. The technician verifies that all power connectors are fully seated. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?



Answer : A

When a newly built workstation shows no response at all---no fans spinning, no indicator LEDs, and no POST activity---this indicates that the system is not receiving the signal to power on. Since the technician has already verified that all primary power connectors are fully seated (including the 24-pin ATX motherboard connector and the 4-pin or 8-pin CPU power connector), the most likely cause is that the case header pins are not connected to the motherboard.

According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) hardware installation and troubleshooting concepts, the power button on the computer case connects to the motherboard via the front-panel (system panel) header, specifically the PWR_SW pins. If this connector is missing, improperly placed, or connected to the wrong pins, pressing the power button will do nothing because the motherboard never receives the power-on signal.

Incorrectly seated RAM typically allows the system to power on but prevents successful POST, often resulting in beep codes or error lights. An underpowered PSU usually causes instability, random shutdowns, or failure under load rather than complete inactivity. A faulty CPU fan connector generally triggers a BIOS warning or shutdown after power-on, not total failure to start.

This scenario directly matches CompTIA's emphasis on checking front-panel connections as a primary step when a system does not power on at all.


CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide -- Hardware Installation, Motherboard Components, and Power Troubleshooting Sections

Question 4

A technician is manually configuring network settings on a user's computer to route network traffic to a newly deployed firewall. Which of the following should the technician change?



Answer : B

The default gateway is the network device responsible for routing traffic from a local computer to destinations outside its subnet. When a new firewall is deployed and intended to manage outbound traffic, client devices must be configured to send packets to this firewall. CompTIA A+ identifies the gateway setting as the key parameter that determines where a workstation sends its external-bound traffic.

By updating the gateway address to point to the new firewall's internal interface, all internet-bound and off-subnet traffic will now pass through the firewall for filtering, inspection, and routing. This ensures correct traffic flow and enforces security policies.

Changing the VPN settings (A) does not affect local traffic routing unless a VPN tunnel is active. Subnet mask adjustments (C) determine the network size but do not control routing. VLAN settings (D) require switch configuration, not workstation changes, and do not dictate default routing behavior.

Thus, modifying the gateway is the correct and necessary step to route all traffic through the newly implemented firewall.


Question 5

Which RAID type offers double parity?



Answer : D

CompTIA A+ teaches that RAID 6 is the RAID level that uses double parity, allowing the array to survive the failure of two drives simultaneously. RAID 6 stripes data across all disks like RAID 5 but stores two independent sets of parity information, making it far more fault-tolerant.

RAID 0 has no parity and provides only performance. RAID 1 mirrors data but uses no parity. RAID 5 uses single parity and can tolerate only one disk failure. Because the question explicitly asks for double parity, only RAID 6 is correct.


Question 6

Which of the following display characteristics would be most important to ensure screen images appear the same as printed output?



Answer : A

Color gamut refers to the range of colors a display can accurately reproduce. For tasks like graphic design or photo editing, ensuring the screen's colors match the printed output is critical. Monitors with wide and accurate color gamuts (e.g., Adobe RGB) are preferred for these applications.

Option B (Pixel density): Incorrect. Pixel density affects image sharpness, not color accuracy.

Option C (Refresh rate): Incorrect. Refresh rate impacts motion smoothness but is unrelated to color matching.

Option D (Resolution): Incorrect. Resolution determines clarity and detail but does not influence color accuracy.


CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 1.2 (Display types and characteristics)

Question 7

Which of the following statements best summarize managed vs unmanaged switches? (Select two).



Answer : C, D

Unmanaged switches require no configuration they simply need to be plugged in and start working immediately, making them ideal for simple network setups.

Managed switches provide advanced features such as VLANs, SNMP monitoring, port security, and traffic management, but require configuration.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 -- Compare and contrast common networking hardware:

''Unmanaged switches operate out of the box with no configuration and are designed for simple connectivity. Managed switches allow for configuration, monitoring, and management of network traffic and security.''

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

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Total 411 questions