CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 (2026) 220-1201 Practice Questions

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Total 504 questions
Question 1

Which of the following wireless frequency ranges involves the use of channels 1, 6, and 11?



Answer : A

In Wi-Fi, the 2.4GHz band contains 14 total channels (depending on region), but only channels 1, 6, and 11 are considered non-overlapping in most countries. CompTIA A+ highlights the importance of selecting these channels to minimize interference, especially in environments with multiple wireless networks or access points.

The 2.4GHz band is narrower than 5GHz, causing adjacent channels to overlap significantly. Using channels 1, 6, and 11 prevents overlap and reduces signal interference, improving performance and stability.

5GHz (B) has many non-overlapping channels and does not use the 1/6/11 scheme. The 6GHz band (C) is part of Wi-Fi 6E and uses entirely different channel planning. The 60GHz band (D) supports short-range high-speed connections like WiGig, not traditional Wi-Fi channels.

Therefore, the 2.4GHz band is the correct answer.


Question 2

Which DNS record is used by DMARC to verify the authenticity of email servers?



Answer : C

CompTIA A+ explains that DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) relies on TXT DNS records to define its policies. TXT records allow administrators to publish arbitrary text-based configuration data, including DKIM and SPF policies, which DMARC references.

MX records identify mail servers, A records map IP addresses, and CNAME records create aliases none are used to store DMARC policy rules.

DMARC improves email authenticity by requiring SPF and DKIM alignment and specifying how receiving servers should handle failed validations. The A+ exam explicitly mentions TXT records as the method used for SPF, DKIM, and DMARC storage.

Therefore, the correct answer is the TXT record, which stores the policy used by DMARC to authenticate senders and prevent spoofing.


Question 3

Which of the following cloud models would multiple organizations in the same industry most likely use?



Answer : C

ACommunity Cloudis designed for use by several organizations with shared concerns (e.g., security, compliance, jurisdiction). It's common in industries like healthcare or finance where multiple entities benefit from a common infrastructure with shared policies.

Option A (Public):Open to general public or large industry group less secure.

Option B (Hybrid):Mix of public and private does not imply industry collaboration.

Option D (Private):Dedicated to a single organization.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.


Question 4

A user replaces their PC power supply and connects it to the components, but the PC fails to start. What is the most likely cause?



Answer : C

Modern motherboards require both the 24-pin ATX connector and a 4-pin or 8-pin CPU power connector. If the CPU power connector is not attached, the motherboard will receive power but the system will not boot. CompTIA A+ specifically lists this as a common mistake after replacing a power supply.

Insufficient wattage may cause instability, but usually the system still attempts to start. RAM does not prevent power-on if missing; instead, the system produces beep codes. Redundant PSUs are used in servers, not standard desktops.

Therefore, the missing CPU power connector is the most likely cause, and this scenario reflects typical troubleshooting steps outlined in A+ hardware diagnostics.


Question 5

Which of the following will most likely be installed in an NVMe port on the motherboard of a desktop PC?



Answer : B

An NVMe port, typically implemented through an M.2 slot, is designed specifically for NVMe-based solid-state drives (SSDs). CompTIA A+ explains that NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is a high-performance storage protocol that communicates directly with the CPU over PCIe lanes, offering significantly faster read/write speeds compared to SATA-based SSDs.

SATA drives (A) connect via SATA ports, not NVMe/M.2 PCIe slots. SAS drives (C) are enterprise-level storage devices requiring SAS controllers and are incompatible with consumer desktop motherboards. Optical drives (D) use SATA or USB interfaces and cannot be installed in an NVMe slot.

Thus, the only device designed for and compatible with an NVMe slot is a solid-state drive (SSD) using the NVMe protocol.


Question 6

A company policy change requires all computers to be encrypted. Which of the following technologies should a technician configure to meet this new requirement?



Answer : D

A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip used to enable encryption technologies such as BitLocker, providing secure key storage for system-wide encryption.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.5 -- Security features:

''A TPM chip is required for system encryption, storing encryption keys securely on the hardware.''

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Security Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.5

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Question 7

A student configures a wireless SOHO network to connect four laptops and one multifunction printer. Which setting ensures the printer is always available?



Answer : A

Printers in SOHO environments must maintain a consistent IP address so devices can regularly locate them for scanning and printing tasks. CompTIA A+ emphasizes assigning static IPs to network printers to prevent address changes that occur with DHCP.

Laptops can remain DHCP clients because their address consistency is less critical. APIPA cannot communicate across networks and therefore should not be used. Assigning public IPs is incorrect and unsafe.

By giving the printer a static IP within the same subnet, all laptops can reliably access it, and the network remains organized and functional exactly as the A+ objectives recommend.


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