A company classifies security groups by risk level. Any group with a high-risk classification requires multiple levels of approval for member or owner changes. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation is the company utilizing?
Answer : A
This scenario describes a strict governance policy requiring multiple approvals for high-risk security group changes. Organizational governance refers to policies that enforce security controls and approval workflows.
Option B (MOU - Memorandum of Understanding) refers to agreements between parties, not internal security processes.
Option C (SLA - Service Level Agreement) refers to service guarantees, not security governance.
Option D (Business process interruption) might be a consequence, but it is not the primary inhibitor to remediation in this case.
Thus, A is correct, as governance rules are restricting remediation speed.
A group of hacktivists has breached and exfiltrated data from several of a bank's competitors. Given the following network log output:
ID
Source
Destination
Protocol
Service
1
172.16.1.1
172.16.1.10
ARP
AddrResolve
2
172.16.1.10
172.16.1.20
TCP 135
RPC Kerberos
3
172.16.1.10
172.16.1.30
TCP 445
SMB WindowsExplorer
4
172.16.1.30
5.29.1.5
TCP 443
HTTPS Browser.exe
5
11.4.11.28
172.16.1.1
TCP 53
DNS Unknown
6
20.109.209.108
172.16.1.1
TCP 443
HTTPS WUS
7
172.16.1.25
bank.backup.com
TCP 21
FTP FileZilla
Which of the following represents the greatest concerns with regard to potential data exfiltration? (Select two.)
Answer : D, G
D (4: HTTPS traffic to an external IP - 5.29.1.5)
The log entry shows an internal system (172.16.1.30) communicating with an external IP (5.29.1.5) over TCP 443 (HTTPS) using Browser.exe.
HTTPS traffic to an unknown external IP could indicate data exfiltration, as attackers often use encrypted channels to disguise stolen data transfers.
G (7: FTP traffic to an external backup server - bank.backup.com)
The log entry indicates that an internal machine (172.16.1.25) is transferring data to bank.backup.com using FTP (port 21) and FileZilla.
FTP is a major concern because it is an outdated, unencrypted protocol that can be exploited for data exfiltration. If unauthorized, this could be a serious data breach.
Other Options:
A (ARP traffic) Not a concern (Just address resolution)
B (RPC Kerberos traffic) Normal for authentication
C (SMB traffic) Internal file sharing
**E (DNS traffic) Common, though could be exfiltration in some cases, but not in this log)
F (WUS traffic) Appears to be Windows Update Service traffic, likely legitimate
AXSS vulnerability was reported on one of the non-sensitive/non-mission-critical public websites of a company. The security department confirmed the finding and needs to provide a recommendation to the application owner. Which of the following recommendations will best prevent this vulnerability from being exploited? (Select two).
Answer : D, F
The best recommendations to prevent an XSS vulnerability from being exploited are to implement a compensating control in the source code and to fix the vulnerability using a virtual patch at the WAF. A compensating control is a technique that mitigates the risk of a vulnerability by adding additional security measures, such as input validation, output encoding, or HTML sanitization. A virtual patch is a rule that blocks or modifies malicious requests or responses at the WAF level, without modifying the application code. These recommendations are effective, efficient, and less disruptive than the other options. Reference: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 156; Cross Site Scripting Prevention Cheat Sheet, Section: XSS Defense Philosophy.
A security analyst needs to ensure that systems across the organization are protected based on the sensitivity of the content each system hosts. The analyst is working with the respective system
owners to help determine the best methodology that seeks to promote confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data being hosted. Which of the following should the security analyst perform first to
categorize and prioritize the respective systems?
Answer : D
Determining the asset value of each system is the best action to perform first, as it helps to categorize and prioritize the systems based on the sensitivity of the data they host. The asset value is a measure of how important a system is to the organization, in terms of its financial, operational, or reputational impact. The asset value can help the security analyst to assign a risk level and a protection level to each system, and to allocate resources accordingly. The other actions are not as effective as determining the asset value, as they do not directly address the goal of promoting confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data. Interviewing the users who access these systems may provide some insight into how the systems are used and what data they contain, but it may not reflect the actual value or sensitivity of the data from an organizational perspective. Scanning the systems to see which vulnerabilities currently exist may help to identify and remediate some security issues, but it does not help to categorize or prioritize the systems based on their data sensitivity. Configuring alerts for vendor-specific zero-day exploits may help to detect and respond to some emerging threats, but it does not help to protect the systems based on their data sensitivity.
Which of the following is the best way to provide realistic training for SOC analysts?
Answer : C
Attack simulations provide realistic, hands-on scenarios that mirror true incidents, allowing SOC analysts to practice detection, analysis, and response skills under real-world pressure. These simulations are crucial for developing and reinforcing SOC procedures and incident workflows.
Phishing assessments (A) are targeted, limited training.
OpenVAS (B) is a vulnerability scanner, not a training tool.
SOAR (D) is a response automation tool.
Honeypots (E) help observe attacker behavior, but aren't training-focused.
Reference:
CS0-003 Objectives 3.3 -- Incident Response Training
Mya Heath All-in-One -- Chapter 14: Post-Incident Activities and Training
A security analyst needs to identify a computer based on the following requirements to be mitigated:
The attack method is network-based with low complexity.
No privileges or user action is needed.
The confidentiality and availability level is high, with a low integrity level.
Given the following CVSS 3.1 output:
Computer1: CVSS3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
Computer2: CVSS3.1/AV:L/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
Computer3: CVSS3.1/AV:N/AC:H/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
Computer4: CVSS3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
Which of the following machines should the analyst mitigate?
Answer : D
Comprehensive Detailed To match the mitigation criteria, we analyze each machine's CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) attributes:
Attack Vector (AV): N for network (matches the requirement of network-based attack).
Attack Complexity (AC): L for low (meets the requirement for low complexity).
Privileges Required (PR): N for none (indicating no privileges are needed).
User Interaction (UI): N for none (matches the requirement that no user action is needed).
Confidentiality (C), Integrity (I), and Availability (A): Requires high confidentiality and availability with low integrity.
From these criteria:
Computer1 requires user interaction (UI:R), which disqualifies it.
Computer2 has a local attack vector (AV:L), which disqualifies it for a network-based attack.
Computer3 has a high attack complexity (AC:H), which does not meet the low complexity requirement.
Computer4 meets all criteria: network attack vector, low complexity, no privileges, no user interaction, and appropriate confidentiality, integrity, and availability levels.
Thus, Computer4 is the correct answer.
NIST NVD (National Vulnerability Database): CVSS vector standards.
CVSS 3.1 User Guide: Explanation of each CVSS metric and its application in vulnerability prioritization.
A security analyst has found a moderate-risk item in an organization's point-of-sale application. The organization is currently in a change freeze window and has decided that the risk is not high enough to correct at this time. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation does this scenario illustrate?
Answer : B
Business process interruption is the inhibitor to remediation that this scenario illustrates. Business process interruption is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident requires the disruption or suspension of a critical or essential business process, such as the point-of-sale application. This can cause operational, financial, or reputational losses for the organization, and may outweigh the benefits of the remediation. Therefore, the organization may decide to postpone or avoid the remediation until a more convenient time, such as a change freeze window, which is a period of time when no changes are allowed to the IT environment12. Service-level agreement, degrading functionality, and proprietary system are other possible inhibitors to remediation, but they are not relevant to this scenario. Service-level agreement is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident violates or affects the contractual obligations or expectations of the service provider or the customer. Degrading functionality is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident reduces or impairs the performance or usability of a system or an application. Proprietary system is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident involves a system or an application that is owned or controlled by a third party, and the organization has limited or no access or authority to modify it3. Reference: Inhibitors to Remediation --- SOC Ops Simplified, Remediation Inhibitors - CompTIA CySA+, Information security Vulnerability Management Report (Remediation...