Eccouncil EC-Council Digital Forensics Essentials 112-57 DFE Exam Questions

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Total 75 questions
Question 1

Cooper, a forensic analyst, was examining a RAM dump extracted from a Linux system. In this process, he employed an automated tool, Volatility Framework, to identify any malicious code hidden inside the memory.

Which of the following plugins of the Volatility Framework helps Cooper detect hidden or injected files in the memory?



Answer : A

In memory forensics, ''hidden or injected'' malicious code typically refers to process injection, code caves, unbacked executable mappings, or regions of memory that are marked executable but do not align with normal, file-backed program segments. The Volatility Framework provides specialized plugins to locate these suspicious patterns. linux_malfind is the plugin designed to detect potentially injected code by scanning a process's memory mappings for characteristics that commonly indicate malicious presence---such as executable anonymous mappings, unusual permissions (e.g., RWX), and memory regions that contain shellcode-like byte patterns. This is highly relevant when malware attempts to avoid disk artifacts by living in memory or by injecting payloads into legitimate processes.

By contrast, linux_netstat is used to enumerate network connections and sockets from memory (useful for C2 analysis), but it does not focus on injected code regions. ip addr show and nmap -sU localhost are live-system networking commands, not Volatility plugins, and they are not suitable for analyzing a captured RAM image. Therefore, to detect hidden/injected malicious code in a Linux RAM dump using Volatility, the correct plugin is linux_malfind (A).


Question 2

Below are the elements included in the order of volatility for a typical computing system as per the RFC 3227 guidelines for evidence collection and archiving.

Archival media

Remote logging and monitoring data related to the target system

Routing table, process table, kernel statistics, and memory

Registers and processor cache

Physical configuration and network topology

Disk or other storage media

Temporary system files

Identify the correct sequence of order of volatility from the most to least volatile for a typical system.



Answer : B

RFC 3227's ''order of volatility'' principle guides responders to collect the most perishable evidence first because some data can disappear immediately when power is lost, processes terminate, or the system state changes during response actions. The most volatile items are CPU registers and processor cache (4) because they change continuously at instruction speed and are lost instantly on shutdown or context switching. Next are routing table, process table, kernel statistics, and memory (3) because live RAM contents and active system tables can change within seconds and are lost if the machine is powered off or rebooted.

After volatile memory, temporary system files (7) are collected because they are frequently overwritten or cleaned by the OS, users, or malware. Then comes disk or other storage media (6) which is more persistent but still subject to modification, log rotation, and overwriting through normal activity; hence imaging should occur before extensive interaction.

Less volatile still are remote logging and monitoring data (2) since they may persist off-host, but can be rotated or altered by retention policies. Physical configuration and network topology (5) generally changes less frequently and can often be re-documented later. Finally, archival media (1) is the least volatile because it is typically write-once or preserved storage. Thus the correct sequence is 4376251 (Option B).


Question 3

Jack, a forensic investigator, was appointed by an organization to perform a security audit on a Linux system. In this process, Jack collected information about the present status of the system and listed all the applications running on various ports to detect malicious programs.

Which of the following commands can help Jack determine any programs/processes associated with open ports?



Answer : D

On Linux, a key step in a forensic triage or security audit is mapping open/listening ports to the owning process so investigators can identify suspicious services (backdoors, unauthorized daemons, rogue remote-access tools) and correlate them with binaries, users, startup mechanisms, and timestamps. The command netstat -tulpn is designed for exactly this purpose. In this switch set: -t limits output to TCP sockets, -u includes UDP sockets, -l shows only listening sockets (open ports awaiting connections), -p displays the owning process name and PID, and -n prevents name resolution by showing numeric IP addresses and ports (faster and avoids altering evidence via DNS queries). This combination yields a concise list of active listening ports and the processes bound to them, which is highly valuable for detecting unexpected services and attributing network exposure to a specific executable.

The other options do not provide process-to-port attribution: netstat -i shows interface statistics, ip r shows the routing table, and netstat -rn displays the routing table in numeric form. Therefore, the correct command is netstat -tulpn (D).


Question 4

Kelly, a professional hacker, used her laptop to perform illegal cyber activities for monetary gain on many victims. She securely locked her laptop using BitLocker software. Using this tool, she locked an entire volume using a secret key to deny access to the system.

Identify the anti-forensic technique used by Don in the above scenario.



Answer : D

The scenario describes the use of BitLocker to lock an entire disk volume with a secret key, preventing access to the contents. In digital forensics, this is a classic example of encryption as an anti-forensics technique. Full-disk or full-volume encryption transforms readable data into ciphertext using cryptographic algorithms so that, without the correct key (password, recovery key, TPM-bound protector, etc.), the data is computationally infeasible to interpret. This directly obstructs evidence acquisition and analysis because a forensic image of the drive will largely contain encrypted blocks rather than interpretable file system structures and user data.

This differs from the other options: file carving is a forensic recovery method (often used by investigators) that reconstructs files from unallocated space; it is not an anti-forensics method used to block access. Artifact wiping attempts to erase traces by deleting or overwriting files, logs, or free space, but it does not inherently prevent access to remaining data if wiping is incomplete. Trail obfuscation involves misleading or altering logs and traces to confuse investigators, whereas encryption primarily denies content visibility by design. Because BitLocker is explicitly a volume encryption mechanism used here to deny access, the correct anti-forensic technique is Encryption (D).


Question 5

Which of the following data acquisition formats supports the Lempel-Ziv--Markov chain (LZMA) algorithm for compression?



Answer : C

In digital forensics, acquisition formats differ mainly in how they store evidence data, metadata, and whether they support features like compression, segmentation, and integrity verification. A Raw format is a sector-by-sector bitstream image (often called ''dd'' style) and typically does not define built-in compression or structured metadata; any compression would be external to the format. ''Proprietary format'' is not a single defined standard---some proprietary images may compress data, but the option is too generic and not tied to a specific, documented compression method.

The format known in forensic documentation for explicitly supporting modern compression such as LZMA is AFF4 (Advanced Forensic Format 4), which is designed as a next-generation container supporting rich metadata, hashing, chunked storage, and pluggable compression options. AFF4's architecture stores evidence in compressed chunks/streams and commonly associates LZMA with efficient, high-ratio compression while preserving forensic requirements such as repeatable verification through cryptographic hashes.

The option ''Advanced ForensicFramework 4'' corresponds to AFF4 in many exam question banks and training materials. Therefore, the correct choice is C, because AFF4 is the acquisition format recognized for supporting LZMA compression as part of its standardized capabilities.


Question 6

Which of the following commands can an investigator use to parse GPTs of both types of hard disks, including those formatted with either UEFI or MBR?



Answer : C

In forensic examinations, investigators must correctly interpret a disk's partitioning scheme because it determines where volumes begin, where file systems reside, and how to validate acquisition completeness. Modern systems may use GPT (commonly associated with UEFI) while legacy systems often use MBR. A practical forensic command therefore needs to detect and parse partition information regardless of whether the disk uses MBR or GPT, and present the results in a consistent, investigator-friendly output for verification and downstream analysis (e.g., selecting the correct partition offsets for imaging or mounting).

Get-ForensicPartitionTable is designed for exactly this role in forensic PowerShell tooling: it parses partition table structures in a forensically oriented manner and supports disks partitioned using either MBR or GPT. That ''forensic'' emphasis typically means it reads raw structures directly, reports partition entries and offsets, and helps avoid ambiguity when the protective MBR (present on GPT disks) could confuse simplistic parsers.

By contrast, Get-BootSector targets boot sector/VBR data rather than the full partition layout; Get-GPT is GPT-specific and does not cover MBR-only disks; and Get-PartitionTable is a more generic label that may not guarantee dual-scheme forensic parsing. Therefore, the correct option is C.


Question 7

A system that a cybercriminal was suspected to have used for performing an anti-social activity through the Tor browser. James reviewed the active network connections established using specific ports via Tor.

Which of the following port numbers does Tor use for establishing a connection via Tor nodes?



Answer : D

In Tor Browser deployments, Tor typically runs a local client (''tor'' process) that exposes a SOCKS proxy for applications (the browser) to send traffic into the Tor network and, optionally, a control interface for managing circuits and obtaining runtime status. In many forensic lab guides and Tor Browser bundle configurations, the default local SOCKS listening port is 9150, and the associated Tor control port is commonly 9151. This pairing is frequently referenced in investigations because endpoint triage (e.g., netstat outputs, firewall logs, EDR socket telemetry) may show local loopback connections from the browser to 127.0.0.1:9150 (SOCKS) and management communications involving 9151 (control).

From a network-forensics viewpoint, these ports help distinguish Tor Browser activity from other proxy tools: the browser does not directly connect to Tor relays; instead, it hands traffic to the local SOCKS proxy, which then establishes encrypted circuits to Tor nodes. While Tor can be configured to use different ports, the question asks about the specific ports used for establishing Tor connections in typical Tor Browser setups, which aligns with 9150/9151. Therefore, the correct option is D.


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