Isaca Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control CRISC Exam Practice Test

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Total 1735 questions
Question 1

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?



Answer : C

According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the percentage of successful changes is the most effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management, as it measures thequality and effectiveness of the change management process and its alignment with the organization's objectives and requirements. The percentage of successful changes helps to:

Evaluate the extent to which the changes have met the expected outcomes and benefits

Identify and analyze the root causes of any failed or problematic changes and implement corrective actions or improvement measures

Monitor and report the performance and progress of the change management process and its impact on the organization

Enhance the confidence and satisfaction of the stakeholders and customers with the change management process and its results

Reference= CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Scenarios, pp.107-1081


Question 2

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIs)?



Answer : D

KRIs and KCIs are both metrics that measure and monitor the risk and control environment of an enterprise. KRIs are indicators that reflect the level and trend of risk exposure, and help to identify potential risk events or issues. KCIs are indicators that reflect the performance andeffectiveness of the risk controls, and help to ensure that the controls are operating as intended and mitigating the risk. Both KRIs and KCIs provide insight to potential changes in the level of risk, as they can signal the need for risk response actions, such as enhancing, modifying, or implementing new controls, or adjusting the risk strategy and objectives.Reference=Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers.CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 240.


Question 3

Which of the following can be used to assign a monetary value to risk?



Answer : A

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) is a method to assign a monetary value to risk by multiplying the probability of a risk event by the potential loss associated with that event1.ALE can be used to compare the costs and benefits of different risk mitigation options and to determine the optimallevel of investment in riskmanagement2.Business impact analysis (BIA) is a process to identify and evaluate the potential effects of a disruption on the critical functions and processes of an organization3. BIA can help to forecast the impacts of a risk event, but it does not assign a monetary value to the risk itself.Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) is a technique to compare the costs and benefits of a project, decision, or action4. CBA can help to evaluate the feasibility and profitability of a risk mitigation option, but it does not assign a monetary value to the risk itself.Inherent vulnerabilities are the weaknesses or flaws in a system, process, or asset that expose it to potential threats5. Inherent vulnerabilities can increase the likelihood or impact of a risk event, but they do not assign a monetary value to the risk itself.Reference= Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.2: Risk Analysis, pp. 77-81.


Question 4

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture?



Answer : A

Architecture is the design and structure of a system or a process, such as an IT system or a business process. Architecture documentation is the document that describes and explains the architecture, such as its components, functions, relationships, requirements, constraints, orstandards.Architecture documentation can help to understand, communicate, and improve the system or the process1.

An environment that lacks documentation of the architecture faces a great risk of unknown vulnerabilities, which are the weaknesses or flaws in the system or the process that could be exploited by threats or attackers, but are not identified or addressed by the organization. Unknown vulnerabilities can pose a serious risk to the organization, because they can:

Compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system or the process, and the information or resources that it handles or supports

Cause financial, operational, reputational, or legal damages or losses to the organization, such as data breaches, fraud, errors, delays, or fines

Remain undetected or unresolved for a long time, and increase the exposure or impact of the risk over time

Require more resources or efforts to mitigate or recover from the risk, and reduce the efficiency or effectiveness of the risk management process23

Lack of documentation of the architecture can increase the risk of unknown vulnerabilities, because it can:

Prevent or hinder the identification and assessment of the vulnerabilities, and the evaluation and prioritization of the risks

Impede or delay the implementation and enforcement of the controls or safeguards to prevent or reduce the vulnerabilities, and the monitoring and reporting of the risk status and progress

Obstruct or limit the communication and coordination among the stakeholders, and the awareness and accountability of the risk owners and users

Restrict or hamper the review and improvement of the system or the process, and the learning and feedback of the risk management4

The other options are not the greatest risks associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture, but rather some of the possible causes or consequences of it.Legacy technology systems are outdated or obsolete systems that are still in use by the organization, but are no longer supported or maintained by the vendors or developers. Legacy technology systems can be a cause of lack of documentation of the architecture, as they may have been developed or acquired without proper documentation, or the documentation may have been lost or discarded over time. Network isolation is the separation or segregation of a network or a system from other networks or systems, either physically or logically, to prevent or limit the access or communication between them. Network isolation can be a consequence of lack of documentation of the architecture, as it may result from the inability or difficulty to integrate or connect the system or the process with other systems or processes. Overlapping threats are threats that affect more than one system or process, or have similar or related sources or causes, such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, or human errors. Overlapping threats can be a consequence of lack of documentation of the architecture, as they may arise from the lack of understanding or coordination of the system or the process with other systems or processes.Reference=

Architecture Documentation - ISACA

Vulnerability - ISACA

The Risks of Not Having a Vulnerability Management Program

The Importance of Architecture Documentation - ISACA

[The Risk of Poor Document Control - ComplianceBridge]

[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]


Question 5

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST to support the implementation of governance around organizational assets within an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?



Answer : A

Enterprise Risk Management (ERM):

ERM involves a comprehensive approach to identifying, assessing, managing, and monitoring risks across an organization. Effective governance of organizational assets is a key component.

Importance of a Risk Profile:

Developing a detailed risk profile is the first step in supporting ERM implementation. It provides a clear understanding of the organization's risk landscape, including the types of risks, their potential impact, and likelihood.

A risk profile helps in prioritizing risks, allocating resources, and establishing appropriate risk management strategies.

Steps to Develop a Risk Profile:

Identify all organizational assets and their importance to business operations.

Assess the vulnerabilities and threats associated with each asset.

Determine the potential impact and likelihood of risk events.

Document the findings to create a comprehensive risk profile.

Supporting Implementation:

A detailed risk profile informs decision-makers and supports the development of policies, controls, and procedures to mitigate identified risks.

It serves as a foundation for continuous monitoring and improvement of the risk management program.

Other Options:

Hiring experienced resources, scheduling internal audits, and conducting risk assessments are essential actions but come after establishing a detailed risk profile. The risk profile provides the necessary information to guide these activities effectively.

Reference:

The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of developing a detailed risk profile as a foundational step in the ERM process (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 1: Governance, Section 1.6.5 Asset Valuation).


Question 6

An organization has decided to outsource a web application, and customer data will be stored in the vendor's public cloud. To protect customer data, it is MOST important to ensure which of the following?



Answer : D

Outsourcing a web application and storing customer data in the vendor's public cloud involves transferring some of the organization's data processing and storage functions to a third-party service provider.This can bring benefits such as cost savings, scalability, and flexibility, but it also introduces risks such as data breaches, unauthorized access, compliance violations, and loss of control12.

To protect customer data, it is most important to ensure that the vendor's responsibilities are defined in the contract. A contract is a legally binding agreement that specifies the terms and conditions of the outsourcing relationship, such as the scope, duration, quality, and cost of the services, as well as the rights and obligations of both parties. A contract should also address the following aspects of data protection :

Data ownership: The contract should clearly state that the organization retains the ownership and control of its customer data, and that the vendor has no rights to use, disclose, or retain the data for any purpose other than providing the agreed services.

Data security: The contract should define the minimum security standards and controls that the vendor must implement and maintain to protect the customer data from unauthorized or accidental access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. The contract should also specify the security certifications or audits that the vendor must comply with or undergo to demonstrate its security posture.

Data privacy: The contract should ensure that the vendor complies with the applicable data privacy laws and regulations that govern the collection, processing, and transfer of customer data, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA). The contract should also require the vendor to obtain the consent of the customers before collecting or sharing their data, and to respect their rights to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data.

Data breach notification: The contract should establish the procedures and timelines for the vendor to notify the organization and the relevant authorities in the event of a data breach or security incident that affects the customer data. The contract should also define the roles and responsibilities of both parties in responding to and resolving the incident, as well as the remedies and penalties for the vendor's failure or negligence.

Data backup and recovery: The contract should outline the backup and recovery policies and practices that the vendor must follow to ensure the availability and integrity of the customer data in case of a disaster or system failure. The contract should also specify the frequency and format of the backups, the location and security of the backup storage, and the testing and restoration procedures.

Data retention and disposal: The contract should stipulate the retention period and disposal method for the customer data, in accordance with the organization's data retention policy and the legal or regulatory requirements. The contract should also require the vendor to return or destroy the customer data at the end of the contract or upon the organization's request, and to provide proof of the data deletion.

By defining the vendor's responsibilities in the contract, the organization can ensure that the customer data is protected in a consistent and compliant manner, and that the vendor is accountable and liable for any data protection issues or breaches that may arise from the outsourcing arrangement .

The other options are not as important as defining the vendor's responsibilities in the contract, because they do not address the core issue of establishing a clear and enforceable data protection framework between the organization and the vendor. Updating the organization's incident response procedures, which are the plans and actions to be taken in the event of a data breach or security incident, may help to mitigate the impact and consequences of such events, but it does not prevent or reduce the likelihood of them occurring in the first place. Storing the data in the same jurisdiction, which means keeping the data within the same geographic or legal boundaries as the organization, may help to avoid some of the data privacy and sovereignty challenges that arise from cross-border data transfers, but it does not guarantee the security and confidentiality of the data. Restricting the administrative access to the vendor, which means limiting the ability to view, modify, or delete the data to the vendor's personnel only, may help to reduce the risk of unauthorized or accidental access by the organization's staff, but it does not ensure that the vendor's staff are trustworthy and competent, and it may also impair the organization's oversight and control over the data.

Reference=Consumer data protection and privacy | McKinsey,9 Tips for Protecting Consumer Data (& Why It's Important to Keep It ..., [Outsourcing Contracts: Key Issues and Best Practices], [Data Protection in Cloud Services: A Guide for Businesses], [Incident Response Planning: Best Practices for Businesses], [Data Localization: What is it and Why is it Important?], [Administrative Access: Definition, Risks, and Best Practices]


Question 7

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?



Answer : C

The most useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification is the risk priorities. Risk priorities are the order or ranking of the risks based on their level of importance or urgency. Risk priorities help the risk practitioner to focus on the most critical risks, and allocate the resources and efforts accordingly. Risk priorities are usuallydetermined by using a combination of factors, such as the likelihood and impact of the risks, the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and the cost and benefit of the risk responses. Theother options are not as useful as the risk priorities, although they may provide some input or context for the risk response planning. The risk register is the document that records the details of all identified risks, but it does not necessarily indicate the risk priorities. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to pursue, retain, or take, but it does not specify the risk priorities. The risk heat maps are graphical tools that display the risk level of each risk based on the likelihood and impact, but they do not show the risk priorities.Reference= Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-23.


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