Isaca IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Practice Test

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Total 75 questions
Question 1

A business continuity plan (BCP) is:



Answer : C

Definition and Purpose:

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is a document that outlines how a business will continue operating during an unplanned disruption in service. It focuses on the processes and procedures necessary to ensure that critical business functions can continue.

BCP Components:

The BCP typically includes Business Impact Assessments (BIAs), which identify critical functions and the impact of a disruption.

It also encompasses risk assessments, recovery strategies, and continuity strategies for critical business functions.

Explanation of Options:

A methodical plan detailing the steps of incident response activities describes more of an Incident Response Plan (IRP).

B a document of controls that reduce the risk of losing critical processes could be part of a BCP but is more characteristic of a risk management plan.

C accurately reflects the BCP's focus on identifying and mitigating risks to business functions through BIAs, making it the most comprehensive and accurate description.

Conclusion:

Therefore, C correctly identifies a BCP as a document that focuses on BIAs to manage risks to critical business processes.


Question 2

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to monitor and review l&T-related risk periodically?



Answer : A

Monitoring and Reviewing IT-Related Risk:

Periodic monitoring and reviewing of IT-related risks are essential to ensure that the organization can adapt to both internal and external changes that might affect risk levels.

Primary Reason:

The primary reason for this ongoing process is to address changes in external (e.g., regulatory changes, market conditions) and internal (e.g., organizational changes, new IT deployments) risk factors.

Risks are dynamic and can evolve due to various factors. Therefore, continuous monitoring helps in identifying new risks and changes in existing risks, ensuring that they are managed appropriately.

Comparison of Options:

B ensuring risk is managed within acceptable limits is a significant outcome of monitoring but is not the primary driver for periodic review.

C facilitating the identification and replacement of legacy IT assets is an operational concern but does not encompass the broader scope of risk management.

Addressing changes in risk factors is a proactive approach that enables an organization to stay ahead of potential issues and maintain an effective risk management posture.

Conclusion:

Thus, the primary reason for an organization to monitor and review IT-related risk periodically is to address changes in external and internal risk factors.


Question 3

Which of the following is an example of an inductive method to gather information?



Answer : C

Penetration testing is an example of an inductive method to gather information. Here's why:

Vulnerability Analysis: This typically involves a deductive approach where existing knowledge of vulnerabilities is applied to identify weaknesses in the system. It is more of a systematic analysis rather than an exploratory method.

Controls Gap Analysis: This is a deductive method where existing controls are evaluated against standards or benchmarks to identify gaps. It follows a structured approach based on predefined criteria.

Penetration Testing: This involves actively trying to exploit vulnerabilities in the system to discover new security weaknesses. It is an exploratory and inductive method, where testers simulate attacks to uncover security flaws that were not previously identified.

Penetration testing uses an inductive approach by exploring and testing the system in various ways to identify potential security gaps, making it the best example of an inductive method.


ISA 315 Anlage 5 and 6: Understanding vulnerabilities, threats, and controls in IT systems.

GoBD and ISO-27001 guidelines on minimizing attack vectors and conducting security assessments.

These references ensure a comprehensive understanding of the concerns and methodologies involved in IT risk and audit processes.

Question 4

Which of the following is MOST likely to expose an organization to adverse threats?



Answer : B

The MOST likely factor to expose an organization to adverse threats is improperly configured network devices. Here's why:

Complex Enterprise Architecture: While complexity can introduce vulnerabilities and increase the difficulty of managing security, it is not inherently the most likely factor to cause exposure. Properly managed complex architectures can still be secure.

Improperly Configured Network Devices: This is the most likely cause of exposure to threats. Network devices such as routers, firewalls, and switches are critical for maintaining security boundaries and controlling access. If these devices are not configured correctly, they can create significant vulnerabilities. For example, default configurations or weak passwords can be easily exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, leading to data breaches or network disruptions.

Incomplete Cybersecurity Training Records: While important, incomplete training records alone do not directly expose the organization to threats. It indicates a potential gap in awareness and preparedness but does not directly result in vulnerabilities that can be exploited.

Given the critical role network devices play in an organization's security infrastructure, improper configuration of these devices poses the greatest risk of exposure to adverse threats.


ISA 315 Anlage 5 and 6: Understanding IT risks and controls in an organization's environment, particularly the configuration and management of IT infrastructure.

SAP Reports: Example configurations and the impact of network device misconfigurations on security.

Question 5

Which of the following are control conditions that exist in IT systems and may be exploited by an attacker?



Answer : B

Control conditions that exist in IT systems and may be exploited by an attacker are known as vulnerabilities. Here's the breakdown:

Cybersecurity Risk Scenarios: These are hypothetical situations that outline potential security threats and their impact on an organization. They are not specific control conditions but rather a part of risk assessment and planning.

Vulnerabilities: These are weaknesses or flaws in the IT systems that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access or cause damage. Vulnerabilities can be found in software, hardware, or procedural controls, and addressing these is critical for maintaining system security.

Threats: These are potential events or actions that can exploit vulnerabilities to cause harm. While threats are important to identify, they are not the control conditions themselves but rather the actors or events that take advantage of these conditions.

Thus, the correct answer is vulnerabilities, as these are the exploitable weaknesses within IT systems.


Question 6

Incomplete or inaccurate data may result in:



Answer : C

Incomplete or inaccurate data results in integrity risk. Here's a detailed explanation:

Availability Risk: This pertains to the accessibility of data and systems. It ensures that data and systems are available for use when needed. Incomplete or inaccurate data doesn't necessarily impact the availability but rather the quality of the data.

Relevance Risk: This involves the appropriateness of the data for a specific purpose. While incomplete or inaccurate data might affect relevance, it primarily impacts the data's trustworthiness and correctness.

Integrity Risk: This is directly concerned with the accuracy and completeness of data. Integrity risk arises when data is incomplete or inaccurate, leading to potential errors in processing, decision-making, and reporting. Ensuring data integrity means ensuring that the data is both accurate and complete.

Therefore, the primary risk associated with incomplete or inaccurate data is integrity risk.


Question 7

Which of the following risk response strategies involves the implementation of new controls?



Answer : A

Definition and Context:

Mitigation involves taking steps to reduce the severity, seriousness, or painfulness of something, often by implementing new controls or safeguards. This can include processes, procedures, or physical measures designed to reduce risk.

Avoidance means completely avoiding the risk by not engaging in the activity that generates the risk.

Acceptance means acknowledging the risk and choosing not to act, either because the risk is deemed acceptable or because there is no feasible way to mitigate or avoid it.

Application to IT Risk Management:

In IT risk management, Mitigation often involves implementing new controls such as security patches, firewalls, encryption, user authentication protocols, and regular audits to reduce risk levels.

This aligns with the principles outlined in various IT control frameworks and standards, such as ISA 315 which emphasizes the importance of controls in managing IT-related risks.

Conclusion:

Therefore, when considering risk response strategies involving the implementation of new controls, Mitigation is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the action of implementing measures to reduce risk.


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Total 75 questions