ISTQB Certified Tester - Performance Testing CT-PT Exam Practice Test

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Total 40 questions
Question 1

What is the primary purpose of a load generator?



Answer : B

A load generator is responsible for simulating virtual users and applying workloads to a system as defined by an operational profile. This allows testers to analyze how the system behaves under different load conditions.

Option A (Background load) is incorrect because load generators create simulated user interactions, not just background noise.

Option C (Record and analyze behavior) is the role of monitoring tools, not a load generator.

Option D (Support root cause analysis) is incorrect because root cause analysis is done after the load test, using monitoring tools.


Question 2

Which type of performance test measures the system's ability to handle increasing levels of load?



Answer : A

Load testing assesses a system's ability to handle gradually increasing levels of load and ensures that it meets performance expectations under normal and peak conditions.

Option B (Elevation testing) is incorrect because this term does not exist in ISTQB performance testing terminology.

Option C (Spike testing) focuses on sudden increases in load rather than gradual scaling.

Option D (Endurance testing) examines how a system performs over an extended period, rather than gradual load increases.


Question 3

Which of the following is a best practice to include in performance test scripts when verifying results?



Answer : B

One of the best practices in performance test scripting is to validate that correct data is recorded in the database after execution. This ensures that performance issues do not impact data integrity.

Option A (Increasing the number of scripts) may provide more coverage but does not verify accuracy.

Option C (Adding transaction timers) is useful for performance monitoring but does not ensure correct data entry.

Option D (Holding the development team accountable) is a management responsibility, not a scripting best practice.


Question 4

Stakeholders were unhappy with previous performance test results, which indicated that the adjustments were not made fast enough and engine stall was probable. The developers have now made changes that they believe will significantly improve the performance of the adjustments.

What should you do to ensure the performance test objectives have been properly defined before you run the next set of performance tests?



Answer : A

Before running the next set of performance tests, it is crucial to understand the differences (delta) between the previous test results and the expected improvements. This ensures that:

The changes made by developers are properly validated.

Performance objectives are aligned with measurable improvements.

Option B (Adjust stakeholder expectations) is incorrect, as performance testing should focus on real data rather than adjusting expectations.

Option C and D (Realign objectives for milestones or time-to-market goals) are incorrect because test objectives should focus on technical accuracy rather than schedule constraints.


Question 5

What is an advantage of aggregating the results of performance testing?



Answer : C

Aggregating test results helps stakeholders understand performance trends by combining data points from multiple test runs. This makes it easier to draw conclusions about system behavior.

Option A is incorrect because aggregation may reduce detailed visibility, not increase it.

Option B is incorrect because aggregation does not expedite testing itself.

Option D is incorrect because aggregated results do not indicate test completion.


Question 6

At what point during performance testing does monitoring with the load testing tool begin?



Answer : D

Performance monitoring must begin simultaneously with test execution to capture system behavior in real-time. This ensures that bottlenecks and performance issues are identified immediately.

Option A (After testing is concluded) is incorrect because historical monitoring does not help in real-time analysis.

Option B (Before execution) is incorrect because monitoring needs active system load to measure performance.

Option C (Immediately after execution) is incorrect because it misses runtime metrics.


Question 7

Which of the following is a typical performance risk associated with mainframe architectures?



Answer : B

One of the key performance risks in mainframe architectures is slow hard disk speed, which can impact transaction processing, batch jobs, and database access times.

Option A (Inconsistent loads via APIs) is more relevant to distributed or cloud architectures rather than mainframes.

Option C (Misconfigured host machine) is a configuration issue, not a typical performance risk.

Option D (Lack of RAM) is less common in mainframes, which typically use optimized memory management.


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Total 40 questions