Shared Assessments Certified Third-Party Risk Professional CTPRP Exam Questions

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Total 125 questions
Question 1

Which of the following data types would be classified as low risk data?



Answer : A

Data classification is the process of categorizing data according to its type, sensitivity, and value to the organization if altered, stolen, or destroyed1. Data classification helps an organization understand the risk level of its data and implement appropriate controls to protect it.Data can be classified into three risk levels: low, moderate, and high23.Low risk data are data that are intended for public disclosure or have no adverse impact on the organization's mission, safety, finances, or reputation if compromised23. Sanitized customer data used for aggregated profiling are an example of low risk data, as they do not contain any personally identifiable or sensitive information that could be exploited for criminal or other wrongful purposes. Sanitized data are data that have been modified to remove or obscure any confidential or identifying information, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, etc. Aggregated data are data that have been combined or summarized from multiple sources to provide statistical or analytical insights, such as trends, patterns, averages, etc. Sanitized and aggregated data are often used for research, marketing, or business intelligence purposes, and do not pose a significant threat to the organization or the customers if exposed.Reference:

1:What is Data Classification? | Best Practices & Data Types | Imperva

2:Data Classification Guideline (1604 GD.01) - Yale University

3:Risk Classifications | University IT

: Data Classification Policy - Shared Assessments

: What is Data Sanitization? | Definition and Examples | Imperva

: What is Data Aggregation? | Definition and Examples | Imperva


Question 2

When defining due diligence requirements for the set of vendors that host web applications which of the following is typically NOT part of evaluating the vendor's patch

management controls?



Answer : C

A documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications is typically not part of evaluating the vendor's patch management controls, because it is not directly related to the patching process. Patch management controls are the policies, procedures, and tools that enable an organization to identify, acquire, install, and verify patches for software vulnerabilities. Patch management controls aim to reduce the risk of exploitation of known software flaws and ensure the functionality and compatibility of the patched systems. A documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications is more relevant to the software development and procurement processes, as it involves assessing the legal, security, and operational implications of using open source software components in the vendor's products or services. Open source software may have different licensing terms, quality standards, and support levels than proprietary software, and may introduce additional vulnerabilities or dependencies that need to be managed. Therefore, a documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications is a good practice for vendors, but it is not a patch management control per se.Reference:

Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Planning

Governance of Key Aspects of System Patch Management

Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide


Question 3

Which statement is FALSE regarding analyzing results from a vendor risk assessment?



Answer : A

The frequency for conducting a vendor reassessment is not necessarily defined by regulatory obligations, but rather by the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as the changes in the vendor's environment, performance, and controls. Regulatory obligations may provide some guidance or minimum requirements for vendor reassessment, but they are not the sole determinant of the reassessment frequency. According to the Shared Assessments Program Tools User Guide, 'The frequency of reassessment should be based on the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as any changes in the vendor's environment, performance, or controls.Regulatory guidance may also influence the frequency of reassessment.'1Similarly, the CTPRP Study Guide states, 'The frequency of reassessment should be based on the risk rating and criticality of the vendor, as well as any changes in the vendor's environment, performance, or controls.Regulatory guidance may also influence the frequency of reassessment.'2


Shared Assessments Program Tools User Guide

CTPRP Study Guide

Question 4

The following statements reflect user obligations defined in end-user device policies

EXCEPT:



Answer : D

End-user device policies are policies that establish the rules and requirements for the use and management of devices that access organizational data, networks, and systems. These policies typically include user obligations that define the responsibilities and expectations of the users regarding the security, privacy, and compliance of the devices they use. According to the web search results from thesearch_webtool, some common user obligations defined in end-user device policies are:

A statement specifying the owner of data on the end-user device: This statement clarifies who owns the data stored on the device, whether it is the organization, the user, or a third party.This statement also defines the rights and obligations of the data owner and the data custodian, such as the access, retention, disposal, and protection of the data123.

A statement that defines the process to remove all organizational data, settings and accounts at offboarding: This statement outlines the steps and procedures that the user must follow to securely erase or transfer all organizational data, settings, and accounts from the device when they leave the organization or change their role.This statement also specifies the roles and responsibilities of the user, the organization, and the device manager in ensuring the proper offboarding of the device143.

A statement detailing user responsibility in ensuring the security of the end-user device: This statement describes the actions and measures that the user must take to protect the device from unauthorized access, theft, loss, damage, or compromise.This statement may include requirements such as enabling encryption, password, firewall, antivirus, updates, and backups, as well as reporting any incidents or issues related to the device1435.

However, option D, a statement that specifies the ability to synchronize mobile device data with enterprise systems, is not a user obligation defined in end-user device policies. Rather, this statement is a feature or functionality that may be enabled or disabled by the organization or the device manager, depending on the security and compliance needs of the organization. This statement may also be part of a device configuration policy or a mobile device management policy, which are different from end-user device policies. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect a user obligation defined in end-user device policies.Reference:The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:

1:End-User Device Policy | IT Services - University of Chicago

4:Device compliance policies in Microsoft Intune | Microsoft Learn

2:Basics of an End User Computing Policy - Apparity Blog

3:End-User Device Management Standard Operating Procedure

5:End-User Devices | Information Security - University of Chicago


Question 5

Which statement BEST describes the methods of performing due diligence during third party risk assessments?



Answer : C

Performing due diligence during third party risk assessments is a process of verifying and validating the information provided by the third parties, as well as identifying and assessing any potential risks or issues that may arise from the relationship.Due diligence methods may vary depending on the type, scope, and complexity of the third party engagement, but they generally involve the following steps123:

Interviewing subject matter experts or control owners: This method involves engaging with the relevant stakeholders from both the organization and the third party, such as business owners, project managers, legal counsel, compliance officers, security analysts, etc. The purpose of the interviews is to gather more information about the third party's capabilities, processes, policies, performance, and challenges, as well as to clarify any questions or concerns that may arise from the questionnaire or other sources. The interviews can also help to establish rapport and trust between the parties, and to identify any gaps or discrepancies in the information provided.

Reviewing compliance artifacts: This method involves examining the evidence or documentation that supports the third party's claims or assertions, such as certifications, accreditations, audit reports, policies, procedures, contracts, SLAs, etc. The purpose of the review is to verify the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the artifacts, as well as to assess the level of compliance with the applicable standards, regulations, and best practices. The review can also help to identify any areas of improvement or weakness in the third party's controls or processes.

Validating controls: This method involves testing or inspecting the actual implementation and effectiveness of the third party's controls or processes, such as security measures, quality assurance, data protection, incident response, etc. The purpose of the validation is to confirm that the controls are operating as intended and expected, and that they are sufficient to mitigate the risks or issues identified in the assessment. The validation can also help to identify any vulnerabilities or gaps in the third party's controls or processes.

The other options are not as comprehensive or accurate as the methods described above, as they may not cover all the aspects or dimensions of the third party risk assessment, or they may rely on incomplete or outdated information. Inspecting physical and environmental security controls by conducting a facility tour is only one part of the validation method, and it may not be applicable or feasible for all types of third parties, such as cloud service providers or remote workers. Reviewing status of findings from the questionnaire and defining remediation plans is more of a follow-up or monitoring activity, rather than a due diligence method, as it assumes that the questionnaire has already been completed and analyzed. Reviewing and assessing only the obligations that are specifically defined in the contract is a narrow and limited approach, as it may not capture the full scope or complexity of the third party relationship, or the dynamic and evolving nature of the risks or issues involved.Reference:

Third Party Due Diligence -- a vital but challenging process

The guide to risk based third party due diligence - VinciWorks

Third Party Risk Assessment -- Checklist & Best Practices


Question 6

When evaluating compliance artifacts for change management, a robust process should include the following attributes:



Answer : B

Change management is the process of controlling and documenting any changes to the scope, objectives, requirements, deliverables, or resources of a project or a program. Change management ensures that the impact of any change is assessed and communicated to all stakeholders, and that the changes are implemented in a controlled and coordinated manner. Compliance artifacts are the documents, records, or reports that demonstrate the adherence to the change management process and the regulatory or industry standards.

A robust change management process should include the following attributes:

Logging: This means that any change request or proposal is recorded in a change log or a change register, along with the details of the change initiator, the change description, the change category, the change priority, the change status, and the change history. Logging helps to track and monitor the progress and outcome of each change, and to provide an audit trail for compliance purposes.

Approvals: This means that any change request or proposal is reviewed and approved by the appropriate authority or stakeholder, such as the project manager, the sponsor, the customer, the steering committee, or the regulatory body. Approvals help to ensure that the change is justified, feasible, aligned with the project or program objectives, and acceptable to the affected parties.

Validation: This means that any change request or proposal is verified and tested to ensure that it meets the quality standards, the functional and non-functional requirements, and the expected benefits and outcomes. Validation helps to ensure that the change is implemented correctly, effectively, and efficiently, and that it does not introduce any errors, defects, or risks.

Back-out and exception procedures: This means that any change request or proposal has a contingency plan or a rollback plan in case the change fails, causes problems, or is rejected. Back-out and exception procedures help to minimize the negative impact of the change, and to restore the original state or the baseline of the project or program. They also help to handle any deviations or issues that may arise during the change implementation or the change review.


CTPRP Job Guide

An Agile Approach to Change Management

CM Overview

Management Artifacts and its Types

Achieving Regulatory and Industry Standards Compliance with the Scaled Agile Framework

8 Steps for an Effective Change Management Process

Question 7

Which statement is FALSE regarding the primary factors in determining vendor risk classification?



Answer : D

This statement is false because network connectivity or remote access may trigger a higher vendor risk classification for any third party that has access to the organization's network, systems, or data, regardless of whether they process personal information or not. Network connectivity or remote access increases the exposure of the organization to cyberattacks, data breaches, or unauthorized access by malicious actors. Therefore, the organization should assess the security controls and practices of the third party, such as encryption, authentication, firewall, antivirus, and patch management, to ensure that they meet the organization's standards and expectations. The organization should also monitor the network activity and performance of the third party, and establish clear policies and procedures for granting, revoking, or modifying access rights. The other statements (A, B, and C) are true regarding the primary factors in determining vendor risk classification, as they reflect the potential impact, likelihood, and severity of the risks associated with the vendor's location, importance, and data processing.Reference:

Impact of Risk Attributes on Vendor Risk Assessment and Classification, SSRN

Guide to Vendor Risk Assessment, Smartsheet

How Do You Determine Vendor Criticality?, UpGuard


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Total 125 questions