WGU Financial Management (C214) Exam Questions

Answer : B

Within the CAPM framework, beta quantifies the degree of systematic risk relative to the market portfolio, which by definition has a beta of 1. A portfolio with a beta greater than 1 carries more systematic risk than the market, meaning its returns are expected to be more sensitive to market movements. This higher sensitivity increases both upside potential and downside exposure. According to CAPM, investors require a higher expected return for bearing this additional risk. Importantly, a higher beta does not guarantee superior performance; it simply reflects greater volatility relative to the market. Option B accurately captures this risk-based interpretation.

Answer : C

The CAPM assists in investment decisions by helping investors and financial managers evaluate the relationship between risk and expected return. The model states that the expected return on a security equals the risk-free rate plus a risk premium based on the security's beta and the market risk premium. In this way, CAPM provides a structured method for deciding whether the expected return of a stock is adequate given its level of systematic risk. Choice C is correct because this risk-return trade-off is the core purpose of the model. CAPM does not predict exact future prices, so choice B is incorrect. It also does not apply only to dividend-paying stocks, making choice A incorrect. Choice D is incorrect because no financial model can guarantee returns in an uncertain market. In financial management, CAPM is widely used to estimate the cost of common equity, evaluate investment performance, and compare required return across securities with different risk levels. Therefore, C is the best answer because CAPM is designed to support investment decisions by linking expected return to systematic market risk.

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Answer : B

Company size has a significant effect on capital structure because larger firms generally have better access to external financing markets. Large companies often have more stable cash flows, broader operating histories, stronger credit profiles, and greater name recognition among investors and lenders. As a result, they are more likely to obtain financing from both debt markets and equity markets on favorable terms. They may be able to issue bonds publicly, negotiate better loan agreements, and attract equity investors more easily than smaller firms. In contrast, smaller firms often face more information asymmetry, less predictable earnings, and fewer financing alternatives, which can increase their cost of capital and limit access to long-term funding. Choice A is too narrow and not generally true. Choice C is incorrect because larger firms are usually less dependent on internal financing, not more. Choice D is also incorrect because smaller firms often face higher borrowing costs due to greater perceived risk. Financial management theory recognizes firm size as an important determinant of financing flexibility and capital structure. Therefore, B is correct because larger firms typically enjoy broader and cheaper access to both debt and equity capital.

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Answer : B

A subordinated debenture differs from a senior debenture primarily in the priority of claims. Both are typically unsecured debt instruments, but subordinated debentures rank below senior debentures in the event of liquidation or bankruptcy. This means holders of senior debt are paid before holders of subordinated debt if the firm's assets are distributed. Because subordinated debenture holders face greater default risk, they usually require a higher yield as compensation. This ranking feature is a key concept in capital market theory because the risk level of a security affects investor required return and the issuer's cost of capital. Choice A is the opposite of the correct answer. Choice C is incorrect because a debenture is generally unsecured, and subordination does not mean collateral is provided. Choice D is unrelated to the distinction between the two instruments. Financial managers must understand debt priority because it influences financing choices, covenant design, investor demand, and interest cost. Therefore, B is correct because subordination means a lower claim on assets and cash flows relative to senior debtholders.

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Answer : A

Covenants in a bond indenture are contractual provisions designed to protect bondholders by restricting or requiring certain actions by the issuer. These provisions help reduce agency problems between shareholders and debtholders after the debt has been issued. For example, covenants may limit additional borrowing, restrict dividend payments, require the maintenance of certain financial ratios, or prohibit the sale of important assets without approval. Some covenants are affirmative, meaning the issuer must do something, while others are negative, meaning the issuer must avoid certain actions. Their purpose is not to set the bond's coupon rate or determine its market price directly. Instead, they reduce risk for lenders by helping preserve the issuer's ability to repay interest and principal. In financial management, stronger covenants can sometimes allow a company to borrow at a lower interest rate because investors perceive less risk. The other answer choices are incorrect because interest rate, par value, and coupon amounts are bond terms, not the purpose of covenants. Therefore, A is correct because covenants are specifically used to protect bondholders' interests through enforceable conditions placed on the issuer.

Answer : B

Inventory turnover measures how many times a company sells and replaces its inventory during a given period. A high inventory turnover ratio generally indicates that inventory is being sold quickly and efficiently, minimizing holding costs such as storage, insurance, and obsolescence. From a financial management perspective, efficient inventory management improves cash flow by reducing capital tied up in unsold goods and shortens the cash conversion cycle. While an extremely high turnover could signal stockouts or lost sales, financial management texts typically interpret higher turnover---relative to industry norms---as a positive indicator of operational efficiency. Option B correctly reflects this standard interpretation.

Answer : A

When calculating cash collected from customers, an increase in accounts receivable must be subtracted from revenue. This is because revenue includes both cash sales and credit sales, but cash collected reflects only the amount actually received during the period. If accounts receivable increased, it means some portion of reported sales has not yet been collected in cash. Therefore, that increase must be deducted to convert accrual-based revenue into a cash basis amount. The general relationship is: Cash Collected from Customers = Sales Revenue Increase in Accounts Receivable, assuming no other unusual adjustments. This treatment is important in preparing or interpreting the operating section of the statement of cash flows, especially under the direct method. Financial management relies on this distinction because firms may appear profitable on the income statement while still facing liquidity pressure if collections are slow. The other answer choices are incorrect because accounts receivable relates to sales revenue, not cost of goods sold. Therefore, A is the correct answer because subtracting the increase in receivables properly adjusts reported revenue to the actual cash collected from customers during the accounting period.

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