What is true about producer surplus?
Answer : B
In Global Economics for Managers, producer surplus measures the well-being of sellers, making option B correct.
Producer surplus is the difference between the price producers receive and the minimum price they are willing to accept. It reflects profits plus fixed costs and indicates how much sellers benefit from participating in a market.
Options A and D confuse producer surplus with consumer or total surplus. Option C is incorrect because producer surplus is not total revenue.
Therefore, option B is correct.
When producing a piece of luggage, the marginal cost is $92 and the marginal revenue is $81. What is the best action for the firm?
Answer : D
According to Global Economics for Managers, when marginal cost exceeds marginal revenue, firms should decrease production, making option D correct.
In this case, MC = $92 and MR = $81. Producing an additional unit would reduce profit because the cost of production exceeds the revenue gained. Reducing output moves the firm closer to the profit-maximizing condition where MR equals MC.
Options A, B, and C would worsen losses or ignore marginal decision-making principles.
Therefore, option D is the correct managerial response.
What is purchasing power parity (PPP)?
Answer : A
In Global Economics for Managers, purchasing power parity (PPP) is defined as a theory suggesting that the price for identical products sold in different countries must be the same in the absence of trade barriers, making option A correct. PPP is a fundamental concept in international economics used to analyze exchange rates and compare price levels across countries.
The core idea behind PPP is the law of one price, which states that identical goods should sell for the same price when prices are expressed in a common currency, assuming no transportation costs, tariffs, or market frictions. If prices differ, arbitrage opportunities arise, leading market forces to adjust prices or exchange rates until parity is restored.
Option B refers to speculative gains from exchange rate inefficiencies, not PPP. Option C describes herd behavior in financial markets. Option D incorrectly links exchange rates directly to socioeconomic well-being, which is not the theoretical basis of PPP.
Global Economics for Managers distinguishes between absolute PPP, which compares price levels directly, and relative PPP, which focuses on changes in inflation rates and predicts how exchange rates should adjust over time. While PPP may not hold perfectly in the short run due to trade barriers and non-traded goods, it remains a valuable long-run benchmark for evaluating currency misalignment.
For managers, PPP is useful when assessing international cost competitiveness, long-term exchange rate trends, and global pricing strategies. Thus, option A accurately captures the definition and purpose of purchasing power parity.
When confronting MNEs, the extender strategy centers on what?
Answer : A
In Global Economics for Managers, the extender strategy centers on leveraging homegrown competencies abroad, making option A the correct answer. This strategy is typically adopted by firms whose competitive assets are strong and transferable across borders and that operate in industries with significant pressure to globalize.
Homegrown competencies may include proprietary technology, strong brands, efficient production processes, or superior managerial know-how developed in the domestic market. Under an extender strategy, firms take these existing strengths and apply them to foreign markets, often through exporting, licensing, franchising, or foreign direct investment. The goal is to extend the firm's competitive advantage beyond national borders without fundamentally altering its core business model.
Option B describes a dodger or collaborator strategy, which emphasizes cooperation rather than independent expansion. Option C aligns more closely with a defender strategy, where firms rely on local advantages to resist foreign competition. Option D reflects elements of a contender strategy, where firms prioritize learning before expanding internationally.
The extender strategy is particularly effective when firms face global competitors but already possess assets that can be scaled internationally at relatively low cost. For managers, understanding this strategy is critical for deciding when and how to internationalize operations in response to MNE competition.
Thus, option A accurately reflects the central focus of the extender strategy as defined in Global Economics for Managers.
Which mode of entry is an equity-based entry mode?
Answer : B
In Global Economics for Managers, entry modes are commonly classified into non-equity, contractual, and equity-based modes, depending on the level of ownership, control, and risk assumed by the firm. A 50/50 joint venture is an equity-based entry mode, making option B the correct answer.
Equity-based entry modes involve ownership of assets in the foreign market. In a 50/50 joint venture, two firms---typically one domestic and one foreign---each contribute capital and share ownership, control, profits, and risks equally. This structure allows firms to access local market knowledge, share financial risk, and comply with host-country regulations that may restrict full foreign ownership.
Option A, franchising, and option C, licensing, are contractual entry modes. In these arrangements, firms transfer intellectual property or business formats to foreign partners without taking ownership stakes. While these modes involve lower risk and investment, they also provide less control. Option D, indirect exports, is a non-equity mode that requires minimal commitment and no foreign ownership.
Global Economics for Managers emphasizes that equity-based modes like joint ventures are often chosen when firms need local partners, face political or regulatory constraints, or operate in culturally or institutionally complex environments. However, they also involve higher risk due to shared control and potential partner conflicts.
Thus, option B correctly identifies an equity-based mode of entry.
When is it best for a firm to decrease production?
Answer : A
A firm should decrease production when marginal cost is greater than marginal revenue. Option A is correct because each additional unit costs more to produce than it brings in revenue, which reduces profit. The standard profit-maximizing rule is to produce where marginal revenue equals marginal cost. If marginal cost exceeds marginal revenue, output is too high and the firm should reduce production. Option B does not justify decreasing production because total revenue greater than total cost indicates profit. Options C and D describe conditions under which restarting or continuing production may be reasonable because price covers average variable cost. The question is about marginal decision making, not total profitability or shutdown rules. For managers, the key rule is simple: do not produce units that reduce profit.
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What are weaknesses of the theory of mercantilism? (Choose TWO.)
Answer : A, B
In Global Economics for Managers, mercantilism is widely criticized for two major weaknesses: it leads to inefficient allocation of resources and reduces national wealth in the long run, making options A and B correct.
Mercantilism views global trade as a zero-sum game, where one country's gain comes at another's expense. As a result, it emphasizes export promotion, import restrictions, and accumulation of precious metals. These policies distort market signals and push resources toward protected industries rather than their most productive uses, leading to inefficiency.
Over time, these inefficiencies reduce overall economic growth and national wealth. Protectionist measures raise prices for consumers, reduce competition, and discourage innovation. Retaliation by trading partners can further harm exports and global welfare.
Options C, D, and E describe modern trade theories, not mercantilism. Mercantilism rejects comparative advantage and free trade.
Therefore, A and B correctly identify weaknesses of mercantilism.