WGU Managing Cloud Security (JY02) WGU (JY02) Managing Cloud Security Exam Questions

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Total 80 questions
Question 1

An organization is considering a cloud provider that has multivendor pathway connectivity. What does this feature provide?



Answer : D

Multivendor pathway connectivity refers to a cloud provider's ability to maintain connections with multiple internet service providers (ISPs). This ensures redundancy and reduces the risk of outages due to a single ISP failure.

Electric providers, fuel vendors, and HVAC contracts support facility resilience, but they are not directly tied to connectivity. The purpose of multivendor pathways is specifically to guarantee uninterrupted network access and resilience for customer workloads.

By maintaining ISP redundancy, cloud providers improve availability and meet SLA commitments. This capability is especially critical for enterprises requiring high uptime or operating in regions where connectivity disruptions are common. It also provides flexibility in bandwidth management and routing optimization.


Question 2

An organization is implementing a new hybrid cloud deployment. Before granting access to any of the resources, the security team wants to ensure that all employees are checked against a database to see if they are allowed to access the requested resource. Which type of security control is the organization leveraging for its employees?



Answer : A

The described control is authorization, which occurs after authentication. Authorization determines what resources a user can access based on their role, attributes, or policies stored in an access control database.

Authentication confirms identity, but authorization validates permissions. WAFs protect applications from malicious traffic, and antispyware tools detect malware. Neither applies to access decisions.

By checking users against a database of permissions, the organization enforces the principle of least privilege, ensuring employees only access the resources necessary for their role. This strengthens data protection, reduces insider threats, and aligns with compliance requirements for access governance.


Question 3

Which U.S. standard is used by federal government agencies to manage enterprise risk?



Answer : D

Federal agencies in the U.S. rely on NIST SP 800-37, Risk Management Framework (RMF), to manage enterprise risk. RMF provides a structured process for categorizing systems, selecting controls, implementing safeguards, assessing effectiveness, authorizing operations, and continuous monitoring.

ISO 37500 deals with outsourcing governance, SSAE 18 governs service provider audits, and COSO is a corporate governance framework but not specific to federal agencies.

NIST RMF is integrated with the Federal Information Security Modernization Act (FISMA) requirements, ensuring agencies manage cybersecurity risks consistently. Its adoption is expanding beyond government into industries seeking comprehensive, repeatable risk management processes.


Question 4

Which role in cloud computing provides products or services that interact with the primary offering of a cloud service provider?



Answer : B

A cloud service partner plays a complementary role by offering products or services that enhance or interact with the primary cloud provider's offerings. Examples include managed service providers, value-added resellers, or software vendors that integrate their solutions with the core infrastructure or platform of a cloud service provider.

The customer is the end user of cloud services, regulators ensure compliance with laws, and developers create applications but do not represent an independent ecosystem role. Partners, on the other hand, extend the value of the primary offering by providing additional tools, support, or integrations that enhance customer experience.

This ecosystem role is recognized by major cloud frameworks, such as the Cloud Security Alliance, which notes the importance of partners in ensuring interoperability, extending services, and supporting shared responsibility. For customers, this means greater flexibility and choice in tailoring cloud solutions to business needs.


Question 5

A customer requests that a cloud provider physically destroys any drives storing their personal dat

a. What must the provider do with the drives?



Answer : C

Cloud providers typically manage multi-tenant infrastructure, where physical hardware is shared among customers. Therefore, drives are not destroyed for each customer unless explicitly required in the contract. If the customer's agreement specifies dedicated hardware disposal, then the provider must comply by physically destroying the drives.

Cryptographic erasure and degaussing are valid sanitization methods, but they may not meet the specific contractual requirement of physical destruction. Insurance clauses are unrelated to disposal.

This question underscores the importance of negotiating contractual terms in cloud agreements. Customers handling highly sensitive or regulated data may require physical destruction, while others may accept logical erasure. Clear agreements ensure both compliance and alignment of security responsibilities.


Question 6

Which activity is within the scope of the cloud provider's role in the chain of custody?



Answer : B

In cloud environments, the provider's role in the chain of custody primarily involves collecting and preserving digital evidence when incidents or investigations occur. Because providers manage the infrastructure, they have direct access to logs, storage systems, and virtual machines necessary for evidence collection.

Backup policies and incident response may involve collaboration, but they remain customer responsibilities in many service models. Data classification and analysis are business-driven tasks, which customers must handle.

Providers must ensure that evidence collection is forensically sound and documented properly to maintain legal admissibility. This responsibility is critical in maintaining trust and ensuring compliance with laws and contractual obligations. It reinforces the shared responsibility model by clearly defining which aspects of digital forensics belong to the provider.


Question 7

In most redundant array of independent disks (RAID) configurations, data is stored across different disks. Which method of storing data is described?



Answer : A

The method described is striping, which is a technique used in RAID configurations to improve performance and distribute risk. Striping involves splitting data into smaller segments and writing those segments across multiple disks simultaneously. For example, if a file is divided into four parts, each part is written to a separate disk in the RAID array.

This parallelism enhances input/output (I/O) performance because multiple drives can be accessed at once. It also provides resilience depending on the RAID level. While striping by itself (RAID 0) increases performance but not redundancy, when combined with mirroring or parity (e.g., RAID 5 or RAID 10), it offers both speed and fault tolerance.

The purpose of striping in the data management context is to optimize how data is stored, accessed, and protected. It is fundamentally different from archiving, mapping, or crypto-shredding, as those serve different objectives (long-term storage, logical placement, or secure deletion). Striping is central to high-performance storage systems and supports availability in mission-critical environments.


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Total 80 questions